Originally posted by Patroklus
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Last edited by Analytic Philosopher; 09-06-2011, 10:45 PM.
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Maybe at one point in time, but Duchamp's urinal is nearly 100 years old now and it's probably time that we move beyond worrying about what is art or what is the medium. If I mix a dye and apply it to a pair of jeans with a paintbrush, have I dyed or painted them? What if I boil the jeans in paint? Where do we draw the line between a cappella and spoken word? More importantly than any of that, though, who really cares?
Since art is just a method of thought and communication I prefer to examine the work of an artist in relation to other artists in all mediums, at least as far as this is concerned. The only people who should really be worried about their medium are the artists themselves, and then only because they need to learn how to use it effectively.Last edited by Patroklus; 09-07-2011, 12:03 AM.
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Originally posted by Patroklus View PostMore importantly than any of that, though, who really cares?
Originally posted by Patroklus View PostThe only people who should really be worried about their medium are the artists themselves, and then only because they need to learn how to use it effectively.
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Originally posted by riluIn the above quote you seem to take the term "fashion" to mean the art form, if I understand you right.
Originally posted by riluDon't we just get a circular definition, because in order to choose which designers fall into the group of "fashion designers" that have the intentions you mention, it seems to me we already have to presuppose a certain notion of "fashion"?
Originally posted by riluNow, we could say, we'd restrict the definition to the "good" or "established" designers, but isn't this then just begging the question?
Originally posted by riluDon't these terms presuppose some normative framework that should actually capture the very notion of "good fashion" (i.e. what a "good" fashion designer actually means, in view of which criteria do we decide that)?
Originally posted by riluI think this is a general problem with definitions of the type "X is Y because Z uses it so in a certain context / because Z performs W." - such definitions still don't tell us what X is, and moreover, in order to restrict X from being reduced to any (undesirable) context/performance, they presuppose some normative account of it.
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Originally posted by Analytic Philosopher View PostI think a lot of people really care.
I think, for the most part, people believe that different art forms or media have different salient properties, and that to really understand particular art works one ought to understand more than just its message, if that can even plausibly be somehow divorced from the packaging.
It sounds to me like you think the analysis of any particular art work should focus solely on the message of that art work. That seems wrong to me. Surely we care about more than just what the artist was trying to say. We care, for example, how they said it. Furthermore, we might ask why the manner in which they chose to say it was so effective. Would it have been more effective in another art form or medium? Why or why not? I think your example of Duchamp's urinal is interesting, at least in part, for exactly these reasons. If Duchamp was just trying to say something, why didn't he just say it? Why did he decide to use a urinal? These are all questions, I think, that are interesting, and which one can't really answer satisfactorily without appealing to something like the art form or the medium.
Didn't you just argue that the art form or medium doesn't matter? All that matters is what the artist is saying, not how they say it.
If it matters for the artist, why doesn't it matter for us?
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Originally posted by Analytic Philosopher View PostI think this is valid concern. Let me make a couple quick comments. I don't think "X is Y because Z uses it in a certain context" fully captures what I think an appropriate account of what counts as a work of fashion should be. At minimum, it should be something like (and this is very rough) "a particular garment is a work of fashion if and only if it is a work that is intentionally produced in order to adorn the body, is composed of the right kind of physical materials, and is meant to be appreciated as an adornment of the body."
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Originally posted by Analytic Philosopher View Post"a particular garment is a work of fashion if and only if it is a work that is intentionally produced in order to adorn the body, is composed of the right kind of physical materials, and is meant to be appreciated as an adornment of the body." .
garment, check
intentionally produced, check
adorn - is this too narrow? Do we lose functional garments which are fashion?
right kind of physical materials - no, this is not helpful, I don't think you need to qualify or even reference this. (Plus by the time you satisify the CCP sect you have human hair and fibreglass on the approved list!)
meant to be appreciated - still on the old "intentionalist" side of the deal. Why not let the other side do the appreciation. Would "and is appreciated by a fashion literate audience" round out the definition.
If that nails the definition, maybe we can discuss whether fashion is art or applied art.spinning glue back into horses. . .
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Originally posted by Patroklus View PostIt's very common for artists to react to the work of others in the same medium and being familiar with the work of other artists in that medium can help you understand a work, especially with older works that predate The Urinal. But it's pretty common for them to react to the work of others in different mediums too, especially with the heavily incestuous art contemporary art world.
Originally posted by Patroklus View PostIt's especially important for the artist because it's the only way they can really learn to use their medium.
Perhaps an appeal to an actual example will more clearly illustrate what I mean. I'm going to borrow an example that Andrew Kania writes about in his article "What is Memento? Ontology and Interpretation in Mainstream Film." (I'm going to assume that you have seen the film, though maybe that's a bit of a dangerous assumption.) In his article, Kania presents two possible "endings" to the film, which coincide with the narratives presented by Leonard, the protagonist, and Teddy, the man whom Leonard kills. Kania argues that within the movie proper, there is not enough information to warrant accepting one of the "endings" over the other. Both are equally possible. However, Kania also points out that there seems to be some secondary information, in the form of a website for the film, interviews with the director, and so on, which perhaps pushes the evidence in favor of Leonard's story. Now, the question is, is it appropriate to bring in that evidence? Kania thinks the answer to this question depends on what medium Memento is properly an example of. If Memento is properly a mainstream film, then he thinks that the secondary information is impermissible, because then the film becomes not a mainstream film, but some sort of mixed-media art work. However, if the film is a mixed-media art work, then it seems like that secondary information might be permissible. Now, I'm skipping over some detailed argumentation, but the general conclusion is that the very meaning of the film changes based on which medium it is properly in. Now, granted, there is definitely room to argue here, but I just wanted to show you a concrete example where it just doesn't make sense to say that the medium doesn't matter, or that all that matters is what the artist was trying to communicate.*
* Part of Kania's argument, if I understand it correctly, is a rejection of actual intentionalism, which is the thesis that you seem to be defending when you argue that what matters is what the artist was trying to say. Instead, he argues for some sort of hypothetical intentionalism, which is the thesis that the meaning of an art work is something like what an ideal audience would think the work was about after having seen it.
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Originally posted by Patroklus View PostJeans were only meant to be durable work pants. Were the first pairs of proto-Levi's fashion, or did they become fashion in after World War II?
Now, this is all based on a definition that I don't actually endorse, but, still, everything above seems plausible to me. For similar examples in other art forms or media, consider something like a musician practicing her scales before a concert. Is the musician's playing of the musical scales a musical work? I don't think so, for the same reasons I gave above.
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Originally posted by Pumpfish View PostAdorn - is this too narrow? Do we lose functional garments which are fashion?
Originally posted by Pumpfish View PostRight kind of physical materials - no, this is not helpful, I don't think you need to qualify or even reference this. (Plus by the time you satisify the CCP sect you have human hair and fibreglass on the approved list!)
Originally posted by Pumpfish View PostWhy not let the other side do the appreciation. Would "and is appreciated by a fashion literate audience" round out the definition.
Originally posted by Pumpfish View PostIf that nails the definition, maybe we can discuss whether fashion is art or applied art.
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i'd love to read it, merz - what goes on in the textile industry has been of interest to me for some time now
Originally posted by Pumpfish View PostIs there a flaw at the heart of "fashion"?
perhaps someone who knows a little more about the history of this system could shed some light on this.
also, why can't fashion have a shelf life longer than 6 months? i don't tire of garments i love after only 6 months...and sometimes it may take me a year to decide whether or not i even want something.
Originally posted by Pumpfish View PostCan you have enduring "fashion" or is obsolescence inherent?
inherent obsolescence is fast fashion...when many people say 'fashion' they actually mean fast fashion
Originally posted by Pumpfish View PostIf "new" matters in fashion, is it inevitable that anything not "new" is devalued?
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Originally posted by Analytic Philosopher View PostThis is all very true, but I'm not quite sure I see what the point is. We might say, for example, that David Cronenberg's film Naked Lunch is reacting to William S. Burroughs's book Naked Lunch. What does that have to do with the claim that, say, to properly evaluate or explain particular aspects of both works, we'd have to appeal to the respective art forms or media of the two works?
Let me try asking the same kind of question that I asked earlier in a different way. If, as you say, it's important for the artist to learn how to use their medium or work within their art form, then why isn't it just as important for the patron to learn how to, say, appreciate works in a particular medium? Or do you contend that there is no relevant difference in appreciating, say, opera and fashion?
Perhaps an appeal to an actual example will more clearly illustrate what I mean. I'm going to borrow an example that Andrew Kania writes about in his article "What is Memento? Ontology and Interpretation in Mainstream Film." (I'm going to assume that you have seen the film, though maybe that's a bit of a dangerous assumption.) In his article, Kania presents two possible "endings" to the film, which coincide with the narratives presented by Leonard, the protagonist, and Teddy, the man whom Leonard kills. Kania argues that within the movie proper, there is not enough information to warrant accepting one of the "endings" over the other. Both are equally possible. However, Kania also points out that there seems to be some secondary information, in the form of a website for the film, interviews with the director, and so on, which perhaps pushes the evidence in favor of Leonard's story. Now, the question is, is it appropriate to bring in that evidence? Kania thinks the answer to this question depends on what medium Memento is properly an example of. If Memento is properly a mainstream film, then he thinks that the secondary information is impermissible, because then the film becomes not a mainstream film, but some sort of mixed-media art work. However, if the film is a mixed-media art work, then it seems like that secondary information might be permissible. Now, I'm skipping over some detailed argumentation, but the general conclusion is that the very meaning of the film changes based on which medium it is properly in. Now, granted, there is definitely room to argue here, but I just wanted to show you a concrete example where it just doesn't make sense to say that the medium doesn't matter, or that all that matters is what the artist was trying to communicate.*
* Part of Kania's argument, if I understand it correctly, is a rejection of actual intentionalism, which is the thesis that you seem to be defending when you argue that what matters is what the artist was trying to say. Instead, he argues for some sort of hypothetical intentionalism, which is the thesis that the meaning of an art work is something like what an ideal audience would think the work was about after having seen it.
Originally posted by Analytic Philosopher View PostThese are exactly the kinds of cases that are going to test any definition of an art form or a medium. Just to make sure that I'm understanding you correctly, you're putting forth an example of something, the very first Levi Jeans, that you think were not produced with the intention of being appreciated as an adornment of the body. Instead, they were intended to be appreciated as a high quality work tool. Is that correct? If it is, then I think my answer to the scenario posed would be that no, the very first Levi's were not a work of fashion. This seems okay to me. After all, not all pieces of clothing are works of fashion, right? Whatever the early hominids wore for protection from the elements might be considered clothing, but it certainly wouldn't be considered fashion. I think it's safe to say, however, that although the very first Levi's may not have been works of fashion, the Levi's of today do seem to be works of fashion.
Now, this is all based on a definition that I don't actually endorse, but, still, everything above seems plausible to me. For similar examples in other art forms or media, consider something like a musician practicing her scales before a concert. Is the musician's playing of the musical scales a musical work? I don't think so, for the same reasons I gave above.
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Originally posted by merzi think a significant difference there is that unlike the case with many artistic media, sartorial matters differ greatly in the nature of the relationship between the creator and the consumer. though always up to interpretation of the consumer, very rarely does any other sort of art enter into direct relationship with the consumer's sense of self or identity, relationship with their space..etc
still forthcoming with a pile of writing for all of y'all. some subjects i'm touching upon have been brought up previously, with the stranger bits of the fashion establishment looked at in detail (trend forecasting and the way fabric suppliers buy into those reports, etc..)
I have access to trend reports, and admittedly I find a lot of them pretty fucking insipid.
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Originally posted by merzwith regard to the trend reports though, someone once detailed interesting things about the way material suppliers treat trend forecasts in a way resembling commodity futures. this places a question of who truly drives the cycle of change in today's fashion establishment and who benefits the most from it. in theory that would be everyone, as they all get to keep their jobs.
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Originally posted by Patroklus View PostThat's not very specific. What about this current economic crisis demonstrates shortcomings in the capitalist system?
As far as the current economic crisis goes, it's not the result of a failure of any particular economic model except for fiat currency. It's the result of a very large group of people who had failed to understand basic arithmetic and was exacerbated by a very powerful group of people who saw an opportunity to orchestrate the grandest heist in history.
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